As many already know, the DSM V has been released as a working draft for public feedback. Within the draft, Introversion is considered a spectrum marker for schizotypical psychopathology. I am not a therapist or a clinician of any sort, so I am really looking for some clarification and insight on the issue. Personally, I take issue as introversion and extroversion seem to cover a spectrum of social engagement, which almost by definition must be within a cultural context. The United States deeply favors extroversion, while say, the Swiss are known for their value of introversion (stereotypically and taken from anecdotes of individuals). I recognize the prickly nature of these sweeping generalizations, which makes it all the more pertinent to investigate and discuss the DSM V's prejudice against a culturally relative tendency.
Depth psychology draws much of its strength from introverted reflection. Jung introduced introversion as a personality type. If one personality type can be deemed pathological, then it follows that the other should have a pathological manifestation. (And we all know pathologically extroverted people pose a much greater threat to social harmony!) It seems as if this is another encounter with the troubling "normal" case buried in the diagnostic depths of psychological statistics.
I would really appreciate any discussion on this, as I am really wondering if my concept of introversion is not applicable to the discussion at hand, or if my concept of cultural biases is not grounded?